Sotah

It has been taught: R. Meir used to say: If a person commits a transgression in secret, the Holy One, Blessed be He, proclaims it against him in public; as it is said: And the spirit of jealousy came upon him;  and the verb 'abar [came upon] means nothing but 'proclaiming', as it is said: And Moses gave commandment, and they caused it to be proclaimed throughout the camp.  Resh Lakish said: A person does not commit a transgression unless a spirit of folly [shetuth] enters into him; as it is said: If any man's wife go aside.  [The word is] written [so that it can be read] sishteh. The School of R. Ishmael taught: Why does the Torah believe one witness in the case of a suspected woman? Because there was some basis for the charge, seeing that he had warned her and she had secluded herself with the man, and one witness testifies that she had 'defiled' [misconducted] herself. R. Papa said to Abaye, But the warning is mentioned in the text after the seclusion and misconduct?  — He replied to him, We'abar [means] there had already come upon him.  But can that interpretation be also applied to, And every armed man of you will pass over?  — In that passage, since it is written: And the land will be subdued before the Lord, then afterward ye shall return,  it follows that the reference is to the future; but here, if it should enter your mind that we follow the order of the text [and we'abar signifies 'will come'], of what use is a warning after misconduct and seclusion had taken place? The School of R. Ishmael taught: A man does not warn his wife unless a spirit  enters into him; as it is said: 'And the spirit of jealousy came upon him and he be jealous of his wife'. What is the meaning [of the word] 'spirit'? — The Rabbis declare, It is a spirit of impurity;  but R. Ashi declares, It is a spirit of purity.  Reasonable is the view of him who declares that it is a spirit of purity, because it was taught: and he be jealous of his wife — this is voluntary  in the opinion of R. Ishmael; but R. Akiba says: It is obligatory. It is well if you say that it means a spirit of purity, then everything is right; but if you say that it means a spirit of impurity, is it voluntary or obligatory for a man to introduce a spirit of impurity into himself! [To turn to] the main text: And he be jealous of his wife — this is voluntary in the opinion of R. Ishmael; but R. Akiba says: It is obligatory. For her he may defile himself  — this is voluntary in the opinion of R. Ishmael; but R. Akiba says: It is obligatory. Of them shall ye take your bondmen for ever  — this is voluntary in the opinion of R. Ishmael; but R. Akiba says: It is obligatory. R. Papa said to Abaye — others declare it was R. Mesharsheya who said to Raba: Is this to say that R. Ishmael and R. Akiba differ in this way throughout the Torah, one maintaining that [a precept] is voluntary and the other that it is obligatory? — He replied, They only differ here over texts: And he be jealous of his wife — it is voluntary in the opinion of R. Ishmael; but R. Akiba says: It is obligatory. What is the reason of R. Ishmael? — He holds the same view as that of the following teacher. It has been taught: R. Eliezer b. Jacob says: Since the Torah declares, Thou shalt not hate thy brother in thine heart,  it is possible to think that this applies also in such a circumstance;  therefore there is a text to say: And the spirit of jealousy came upon him and he be jealous of his wife.  And [what is the reason of] R. Akiba? — The word 'jealous' occurs a second time in the verse.  And [how does] R. Ishmael [explain the repetition of jealous]? — Since it was necessary to write, And she be defiled and afterwards and she be not defiled, the Torah wrote and he be jealous of his wife.  This is in agreement with the teaching of the School of R. Ishmael; for it was taught in the School of R. Ishmael; Wherever a Scriptural passage is repeated, it is only repeated because of some new point contained therein. [Similarly] 'For her he may defile himself — this is voluntary in the opinion of R. Ishmael; but R. Akiba says: It is obligatory. What is the reason of R. Ishmael? — Since it is written: Speak unto the priests the sons of Aaron and say unto them, There shall none defile himself for the dead among his people,  it was likewise necessary to write, For her he may defile himself. And [from where does] R. Akiba [learn that a priest may so defile himself]? — He derives it from, Except for his kin;  what then is the purpose of, For her he should defile himself? [It is to indicate that] it is obligatory. And [how does] R. Ishmael [explain the addition of these words]? — 'For her' he may defile himself but not for any of her limbs.