Parallel
יומא 68:1
Soncino English Talmud · Berean Standard Bible
just as above it is [carried forth] by means of cutting up and not by flaying, so here also it is by means of cutting up and not by flaying. Whence do we know it there? — For it was taught: ‘And its inwards, and its dung, and he shall carry forth’, that teaches that he must carry it forth complete. One might have assumed that he must also burn it complete, therefore it is said here: ‘with its head and with its legs’ and there also it is said: its head and its legs, hence just as there it is [offered] by means of cutting up, so here also it is [carried forth] by means of cutting up. One might assume that just as there it is by means of flaying, so here too, therefore the text reads: ‘And its inwards and its dung’. How is this implied [in the Scriptural text]? — R. Papa answered: Just as the dung is enclosed in the inwards, so shall the flesh be enclosed in the skin. FROM WHAT TIME DO THEY RENDER GARMENTS UNCLEAN? [etc.] Our Rabbis taught: [And the bullock and . . . the he-goat] he shall carry forth without the camp and they shall burn. There you allot them three camps and here only one camp? Then, why does it read: ‘without the camp’? To tell you: As soon as he goes outside the one camp, the garments are rendered unclean. Whence do we know it there? — For it was taught: Even the whole bullock shall he carry forth without the camp, i.e., without the three camps. — You say: Without the three camps, but perhaps it means [only] ‘without one camp’? When Scripture says, in connection with the bullock of the congregation: ‘without the camp’, whereas no such statement [of the text] is necessary, for it is said already: And he shall burn it as he burned the first bullock, why then was ‘without the camp’ stated? To allot it another camp; and when Scripture says, Without the camp’, in connection with the removal of the ashes whereas no such statement is necessary, since it is said already: Where the ashes are poured out, this means to allot it a third camp. What does R. Simeon do ‘Without the camp’? He needs it, as it was taught: R. Eliezer says: It is said here: ‘Without the camp’, and it is said there: Without the camp: Just as here it means outside the three camps, so does it mean there outside the three camps; and just as there it means to the east of Jerusalem, so does it mean here to the east of Jerusalem. But according to the view of the Sages where were they burnt? In accordance with what was taught: Where were they burnt?
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