Menachot

Just as here the priest [is stated], so there too the priest [is meant]; and just as there the owner [is referred to], so here too the owner [is required]. How is it to be done? The priest places his hand under the hands of the owner and waves. And why does not [the Mishnah] say, ‘The firstfruits also according to R. Judah’? For it was taught: R. Judah says, And thou shalt set it down:1 this refers to the rite of waving. You say that it refers to the waving, but perhaps it means literally ‘setting it down!’ As it has already said, And set it down, setting down [in the literal sense] has already been indicated. What then is the meaning of, ‘And thou shalt set it down’? It can only refer to the waving! — Raba answered, It is only because his2 verse is stated earlier in the chapter.3 R. Nahman b. Isaac answered, It is because his2 knowledge was exceptional.4 THE SACRIFICIAL PORTIONS OF AN INDIVIDUAL'S PEACE-OFFERINGS AND THE BREAST AND THE THIGH THEREOF, WHETHER THEY ARE THE OFFERINGS OF MEN OR OF WOMEN, BY ISRAELITES BUT NOT BY OTHERS. What does this mean? Said Rab Judah: It means this: WHETHER THEY ARE THE OFFERINGS OF MEN OR OF WOMEN these offerings require waving, but the rite of waving shall be performed by Israelites and not by women. 5 Our Rabbis taught: The children of Israel may perform the rite of waving but not gentiles; the children of Israel may perform the rite of waving but not women. R. Jose said, Since we find that Scripture has distinguished between the offering of an Israelite and the offering of a gentile or of a woman with regard to the laying on of hands,6 should we not also make this distinction with regard to the rite of waving?7 No; for whereas there is good reason to make such a distinction with regard to the laying on of hands, by virtue of the fact that the laying on of hands must be performed by the owner of the offering,8 is there any reason to make such a distinction with regard to the rite of waving, seeing that the priests [also] perform the waving?9 Why then10 does the text expressly state ‘the children of Israel’?11 To teach that the children of Israel may perform the waving but not gentiles;12 the children of Israel may perform the waving but not women.13 Another [Baraitha] taught: It is written, The children of Israel. I know from this that the children of Israel [perform the waving]; whence do I know to include also proselytes and freed slaves? The text therefore states, He that offereth.14 Perhaps ‘he that offereth’ refers only to the priest! But since the verse states subsequently, His own hands shall bring the offerings,15 the owners are already indicated. How is it then to be explained?16 The priest places his hand under the hands of the owner and waves. therefore only quoted R. Eliezer b. Jacob. gentiles as it is not proper for them to enter the Sanctuary for this purpose. on their behalf. suggested, refers to the rite as being performed by the priest. How are these verses to be reconciled?