that the one which had not given birth is much the better one. There is need therefore [for the enumeration of all the instances where R. Tarfon and R. Akiba differ]. MISHNAH. WITH REGARD TO [AN ANIMAL] EXTRACTED THROUGH THE CESAREAN SECTION AND THE FIRSTLING WHICH CAME AFTER IT, R. TARFON SAYS: BOTH PASTURE UNTIL BLEMISHED AND ARE EATEN WITH THEIR BLEMISHES BY THE OWNERS, WHEREAS R. AKIBA SAYS: IN BOTH CASES THE LAW OF THE FIRSTLING DOES NOT APPLY: IN THE FIRST, BECAUSE IT IS NOT THE FIRST-BIRTH OF THE WOMB, AND THE SECOND, BECAUSE ANOTHER [ANIMAL] PRECEDED IT. GEMARA. On what principle do they differ? — R. Tarfon is in doubt whether a firstling in only one respect is the firstling [of Scripture]. whereas R. Akiba is certain that a firstling in only one respect is not the firstling [of the Scripture]. Our Rabbis taught: [A lesson can be derived] from a general proposition which requires complementing by specification and from a specification which requires complementing by a general proposition. For Instance: [Scripture says]: Sanctify unto me all the first-born. I might understand from this that even a female is subject to the law of the firstling. Hence the text expressly states: All the firstling males [that are born]. From the word males’, however, I might understand that even if a female came forth before it, [it is subject to the law of the firstling]. Hence the text expressly states: That openeth the womb. From the words ‘that openeth the womb’, however, I might understand that the law applies even if it came after an animal extracted through the cesarean section. Hence Scripture expressly states: The firstling. Said R. Sherabya to Abaye: In the first part [of the above passage], why does not the Talmud bring the text ‘The firstling’? From this we see that a firstling in only one respect is the firstling [of the Scripture]. And in the last part [of the above passage], the Talmud brings the text ‘firstling’. Consequently, we see that the firstling in only one respect is not the firstling [of the Scripture]! — He replied to him: Indeed a firstling in only one respect may still not be the firstling [of the Scripture] and, in the first part [of the above passage], what he means to say is this: From the word ‘male’ in the text, however, I might infer that even a firstling extracted through the cesarian section is the firstling [of the Scripture]. Hence Scripture expressly states: The first-birth of the womb. Rabina said: Indeed a firstling in one respect may still be the firstling [of the Scripture]. and the last part [of the passage] means this: If you should assume that a firstling which came forth after one extracted through the cesarean section is sanctified, what need is there for the Divine Law to write the word ‘Firstling’? 14ᵃᵇᶜᵈᵉᶠᵍʰⁱʲᵏˡᵐⁿ